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Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021

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Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021

2021 c. 12

An Act to make provision about airspace change proposals, about the licensing regime for air traffic services under Part 1 of the Transport Act 2000 and about airport slot allocation, to confer police powers relating to unmanned aircraft and requirements in Air Navigation Orders and to provide for fixed penalties for certain offences relating to unmanned aircraft.

Enacted[29th April 2021]
Be it enacted by the Queen's most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:—

PART 1  Airspace change proposals

I1031 Meaning of “airspace change proposal”

In this Part references to an “airspace change proposal” are to a proposal that—
a relates to managed airspace or the flight procedures or air traffic control procedures used within it, and
b is of a type that the CAA is required to develop procedures for dealing with by directions given (from time to time) under section 66 of the Transport Act 2000 (air navigation directions given by the Secretary of State to the CAA).

I1042 Direction to progress airspace change proposal

1 The Secretary of State may give a direction to a person involved in airspace change requiring the person to do one or more of the following—
a prepare an airspace change proposal or take steps towards the preparation of an airspace change proposal;
b submit an airspace change proposal to the CAA;
c take steps to obtain approval to an airspace change proposal that has been submitted to the CAA;
d review the operation of an airspace change proposal that has been implemented (having been approved).
(This is subject to subsection (4).)
2 For the purposes of this Part, a person is involved in airspace change if the person is—
a an air navigation service provider,
b an airport operator, or
c another person with functions relating to air navigation.
3 Before giving a direction to a person under subsection (1) the Secretary of State must consult the person.
4 The Secretary of State may give a direction under subsection (1) only if the Secretary of State considers that the direction will assist in the delivery of the CAA's airspace strategy.
5 A direction given to a person under subsection (1) may require the person, in doing what the person is directed to do, to—
a act in accordance with procedures published by the CAA, and
b have regard to guidance published by the CAA concerning those procedures.
6 A direction given to a person under subsection (1) may—
a require the person to do specified things by specified dates;
b require the person to keep the CAA informed at specified intervals of the progress being made towards doing what the person is directed to do.
7 The references in subsection (5) to procedures and guidance published by the CAA are to procedures and guidance published by the CAA in accordance with directions given (from time to time) under section 66 of the Transport Act 2000 (air navigation directions given by the Secretary of State to the CAA).

I1053 Direction to co-operate in airspace change proposal

1 The Secretary of State may give a direction to a person involved in airspace change requiring the person to co-operate with another person involved in airspace change for the purpose of assisting that other person to do one or more of the following—
a prepare an airspace change proposal or take steps towards the preparation of an airspace change proposal;
b submit an airspace change proposal to the CAA;
c take steps to obtain approval to an airspace change proposal that has been submitted to the CAA;
d review the operation of an airspace change proposal that has been implemented (having been approved).
(This is subject to subsection (3).)
2 Before giving a direction under subsection (1) the Secretary of State must consult—
a the person to whom the direction would be given, and
b the person with whom co-operation would be directed.
3 The Secretary of State may give a direction under subsection (1) only if the Secretary of State considers that the direction will assist in the delivery of the CAA's airspace strategy.
4 A direction under subsection (1) may require a person to co-operate in such ways as the Secretary of State considers appropriate including by—
a providing such information and documents as are reasonably requested by the person with whom co-operation is directed, and
b providing that information or those documents in such form (including, in the case of information, by answering questions orally or in writing) as is reasonably requested by the person with whom co-operation is directed.
5 A direction given to a person under subsection (1) may—
a require the person to do specified things by specified dates;
b where the direction requires the person to provide such information and documents as are reasonably requested by the person with whom co-operation is directed, require the person to provide the information and documents by such date as the person with whom co-operation is directed reasonably requests;
c require the person to keep the CAA informed at specified intervals of the progress being made towards doing what the person is directed to do.
6 If the person to whom a direction is given considers that a request for information or documents from the person with whom co-operation is directed is not a reasonable request (whether by virtue of what has been requested, the form in which it has been requested or the date by when it has been requested), the person to whom the direction is given may refer the request to the CAA.
7 If a request is referred to the CAA under subsection (6), the CAA must—
a determine whether or not the request is a reasonable request, and
b give a notice of the determination to both persons referred to in subsection (6).
8 A direction under subsection (1) may not require a person to provide information or documents that the person could not be compelled to provide in evidence in civil proceedings before the High Court or, in Scotland, the Court of Session.

I1064 Directions under sections 2 and 3: supplemental

1 A direction under section 2 or 3 must be given in writing.
2 The Secretary of State may vary or revoke a direction under section 2 or 3 by giving a notice to the person to whom the direction was given.(This is subject to subsection (4).)
3 Before varying a direction under subsection (2) the Secretary of State must consult—
a in the case of a direction under section 2, the person to whom the direction was given, and
b in the case of a direction under section 3, the person to whom the direction was given and the person with whom co-operation was directed.
4 The Secretary of State may vary a direction under subsection (2) only if the Secretary of State considers that the direction as varied will assist in the delivery of the CAA's airspace strategy.
5 The Secretary of State must publish—
a a direction under section 2 or 3;
b a notice of variation or revocation under subsection (2).
6 In so far as a direction under section 2 or 3 conflicts with the requirements of a direction under—
a section 14 of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (directions for purposes of protecting aircraft, aerodromes and air navigation installations against acts of violence),
b section 38 of the Transport Act 2000 (directions in interests of national security etc), or
c section 93 of the Transport Act 2000 (control in time of hostilities etc),
the direction under section 2 or 3 is to be disregarded.

I1075 Delegation of functions to CAA

1 The Secretary of State may delegate to the CAA the Secretary of State's functions under sections 2 to 4 by giving a notice to the CAA.
2 In carrying out functions delegated to it under subsection (1), the CAA must have regard to any international obligation of the United Kingdom notified to the CAA by the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Part.
3 The following provisions of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 are not to apply in relation to functions delegated to the CAA under subsection (1)—
a section 4 (general objectives of the CAA);
b section 7(1) (Secretary of State's power to prescribe functions not to be performed by a person on the CAA's behalf).
4 The Secretary of State may revoke a delegation of functions under subsection (1) by giving a notice to the CAA.
5 The CAA must publish a notice given to it under subsection (1) or (4).

I1086 Provision of information

In section 84 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (provision by others of information for the CAA and Secretary of State), in subsection (1)—
a after paragraph (d) insert—
;
b after paragraph (iii) insert—

I17 Appeals and enforcement

I1091 Schedule 1 makes provision for appeals against decisions to give or vary directions under sections 2 and 3.
I1102 Schedule 2 makes provision for—
a the CAA to enforce directions, and
b connected appeals.

I1118 Part 1: interpretation

1 In this Part—
  • “air navigation service provider” means a person who provides air traffic services within the meaning of Part 1 of the Transport Act 2000 (see section 98 of that Act) by virtue of—
    1. an exemption granted under section 4 of that Act, or
    2. a licence granted under section 6 of that Act;
  • “airport operator” has the same meaning as in the Airports Act 1986 (see section 82(1) of that Act);
  • “airspace change proposal” has the meaning given by section 1;
  • “the CAA” means the Civil Aviation Authority;
  • “the CAA's airspace strategy” means the strategy and plan (taken together) for the use of managed airspace that the CAA is required to prepare and maintain by directions given (from time to time) under section 66 of the Transport Act 2000 (air navigation directions given by the Secretary of State to the CAA);
  • “managed airspace” means airspace above—
    1. the United Kingdom, and
    2. any area which is outside the United Kingdom but in respect of which the United Kingdom has undertaken under international arrangements to carry out activities with regard to air navigation.
2 References in this Part to a person involved in airspace change are to be read in accordance with section 2(2).
3 References in this Part to a notice are to a notice in writing.
4 Where a person is required to publish something by this Part, the person must publish it in whatever form and manner the person considers appropriate for bringing it to the attention of persons likely to be affected by it.

PART 2  Air traffic

I589 Licensed air traffic services: modifying the licence and related appeals

1 For section 11 of the Transport Act 2000 substitute—
2 Omit sections 12 to 18 of that Act.
3 Schedule 3 to this Act makes provision for appeals against modifications of licence conditions.
4 Before Schedule 1 to the Transport Act 2000 insert the Schedule A1 (appeals under section 19A) set out in Schedule 4 to this Act.

I6010 Air traffic services licensed under Part 1 of the Transport Act 2000: enforcement

1 Chapter 1 of Part 1 of the Transport Act 2000 is amended as follows.
2 For section 20 substitute—
3 Omit sections 21 to 24.
4 For section 25 substitute—
5 After that section insert—
6 In section 34 (investigations), for subsections (1) and (2) substitute—
7 After Schedule A1 (inserted by section 9) insert—
a the Schedule B1 (enforcement of duties under section 8 and licence conditions) set out in Schedule 5 to this Act;
b the Schedule C1 (information) set out in Schedule 6 to this Act.

I8111 Air traffic services: consequential amendments

Schedule 7 contains amendments that are consequential on sections 9 and 10.

12 Airport slot allocation

1 Council Regulation (EEC) No 95/93 of 18 January 1993 on common rules for the allocation of slots at United Kingdom airports is amended as follows.
2 After Article 10a insert—
3 In Article 13 (regulations)—
a after paragraph 1 insert—
;
b in paragraph 2, for “Regulations” substitute “ Any other regulations ”.

PART 3  Unmanned aircraft

I2I8213 Powers of police officers and prison authorities

Schedule 8 makes provision about powers of police officers and prison authorities relating to unmanned aircraft.

I314 Powers of police officers relating to ANO 2016 and the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025

Schedule 9 makes provision about powers of police officers relating to requirements in the ANO 2016 and the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284).

I4I8315 Fixed penalties for certain offences relating to unmanned aircraft

Schedule 10 makes provision about fixed penalties for certain offences relating to unmanned aircraft.

16 Amendment and enforcement regulations

Schedule 11 confers powers to make amendment and enforcement regulations.

17 Disclosures of information

1 Except as provided by subsection (2), a disclosure of information under a provision of this Part does not breach—
a any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the disclosure, or
b any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
2 Nothing in this Part authorises a disclosure of information which—
a would contravene the data protection legislation (but in determining whether a disclosure would do so, the duties imposed by this Part are to be taken into account), or
b is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
3 Nothing in this Part limits the circumstances in which information may be disclosed apart from under this Part.
4 In this section “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act).
5 Until the repeal of Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 by paragraph 54 of Schedule 10 to the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 is fully in force, subsection (2)(b) has effect as if it included a reference to that Part.

18 Part 3: interpretation

In this Part—
  • “ANO 2016” means the Air Navigation Order 2016;
  • “subordinate legislation” means any instrument made or to be made—
    1. under an Act of Parliament, or
    2. on or after IP completion day under any assimilated direct legislation;
  • “unmanned aircraft” means any aircraft operating or designed to operate autonomously or to be piloted remotely without a pilot on board.

PART 4  General

19 Regulations

1 A power to make regulations under any provision of this Act includes power to—
a make different provision for different purposes or areas;
b confer functions on the Secretary of State or any other person;
c make consequential, supplementary, incidental, transitional or saving provision.
2 Regulations under this Act are to be made by statutory instrument.
3 A statutory instrument containing any of the following (whether alone or with other provision) may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before and approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament—
a regulations under paragraph 12 of Schedule 2;
b the first regulations to be made under paragraph 2 of Schedule 10;
c the first regulations to be made under paragraph 5 of Schedule 10;
d regulations under paragraph 6 of Schedule 10 which contain provision amending or repealing provision contained in an Act of Parliament;
e regulations under paragraph 1(2) of Schedule 11 that make provision authorised by paragraph 1(3)(b) or (4)(b) or (c) of that Schedule;
f regulations under paragraph 3(1)(a) of Schedule 11.
4 Any other statutory instrument containing regulations under this Act is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament.
5 This section does not apply to regulations under section 21.

20 Extent

This Act extends to England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland, except that section 12 (airport slot allocation) extends to England and Wales and Scotland only.

21 Commencement

1 The following provisions come into force on the day on which this Act is passed—
a sections 7(2) and 13 to 15 and Schedules 2 and 8 to 10, but only for the purpose of making regulations;
b section 12;
c section 16 and Schedule 11;
d sections 17 and 18;
e this Part.
2 Section 14 and Schedule 9 come into force for all other purposes at the end of the period of two months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed.
3 Except as provided by subsections (1) and (2), this Act comes into force on such day as the Secretary of State may by regulations appoint.
4 Different days may be appointed for different purposes.
5 The Secretary of State may by regulations make transitional or saving provision in connection with the coming into force of any provision of this Act.
6 The power to make regulations under subsection (5) includes power to make different provision for different purposes.
7 Regulations under this section are to be made by statutory instrument.

22 Short title

This Act may be cited as the Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021.

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE 1 

Appeals against decisions to give or vary airspace change directions

Section 7

Appeals against decisions to give or vary directions

I1121
1 A person who is given a direction under section 2 or 3 may appeal to the Tribunal against—
a the decision to give the direction;
b a decision to vary the direction.
2 The making of an appeal under this paragraph suspends the effect of the direction or the variation (as the case may be) until the appeal is decided or withdrawn, unless the Tribunal orders otherwise.

Decisions on appeal

I1132
1 The Tribunal may allow an appeal under paragraph 1 only to the extent that it is satisfied that the decision appealed against was wrong on one or more of the following grounds—
a that the decision was based on an error of fact;
b that the decision was wrong in law;
c that an error was made in the exercise of a discretion.
2 If the Tribunal allows the appeal, the Tribunal may set aside or confirm the direction or the variation (as the case may be).
3 If the Tribunal does not allow the appeal, the Tribunal must confirm the direction or the variation (as the case may be).
4 When deciding an appeal against a decision made by the CAA, the Tribunal must have regard to any international obligations which the CAA is required to have regard to under section 5(2).

Further appeals

I1143
1 An appeal lies to the appropriate court on a point of law arising from a decision of the Tribunal under paragraph 2.
2 An appeal under this paragraph may be brought by a party to the proceedings before the Tribunal.
3 An appeal may not be brought under this paragraph without the permission of—
a the Tribunal, or
b the appropriate court.
4 In this paragraph “the appropriate court”—
a in the case of an appeal from proceedings in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, means the Court of Appeal;
b in the case of an appeal from proceedings in Scotland, means the Court of Session.

Interpretation

I1154In this Schedule “the Tribunal” means the Competition Appeal Tribunal.

SCHEDULE 2 

Enforcement of airspace change directions and connected appeals

Section 7

PART 1  Enforcement of directions

Contravention notices

I5I1161
1 The CAA may give a notice under this paragraph (a “contravention notice”) to a person if the CAA has reasonable grounds for believing that the person has contravened a direction requirement.
2 A contravention notice must—
a specify the direction requirement and contravention in respect of which it is given;
b explain the action that the CAA may take under this Schedule in connection with the contravention;
c explain that representations may be made about the matters in the notice before the end of the representation period.
3 The CAA may extend the representation period on one or more occasions by giving a notice to the person.
4 If the CAA withdraws a contravention notice, the CAA must give a notice to the person that includes its reasons for doing so.
5 As soon as practicable after giving a notice under sub-paragraph (1), (3) or (4), the CAA must publish the notice.
6 In this Schedule “representation period”, in relation to a contravention notice, means—
a the period of 14 days beginning with the day on which the contravention notice is given;
b where the period has been extended in accordance with sub-paragraph (3), the extended period.

Enforcement orders

I6I1172
1 The CAA may give an order under this paragraph (an “enforcement order”) to a person if—
a the CAA has given the person a contravention notice (and has not withdrawn it),
b the representation period has ended,
c the CAA has considered any representations made before the end of that period (and not withdrawn) about the matters in the contravention notice, and
d the CAA has determined that the person has contravened a direction requirement specified in the contravention notice in one or more of the ways specified in the notice.
2 An enforcement order must—
a specify the direction requirement and contravention in respect of which it is given;
b require the person to take the steps specified in the order to remedy the consequences of the contravention;
c require the person to take those steps within a reasonable period specified in the order;
d explain that the CAA may impose a penalty on the person in accordance with this Schedule if the person fails to take the specified steps within the specified period;
e give the CAA's reasons for giving the order.
3 As soon as practicable after giving an enforcement order, the CAA must publish the order.

Enforcement orders: modification and revocation

I7I1183
1 The CAA may modify or revoke an enforcement order by giving a notice to the person to whom the order was given.
2 The notice under sub-paragraph (1) must give the CAA's reasons for the modification or revocation.
3 As soon as practicable after giving a notice under sub-paragraph (1), the CAA must publish the notice.

Penalty for contravention of enforcement order

I8I1194The CAA may impose a penalty on a person if the CAA has determined that the person has contravened a requirement of an enforcement order.

Procedure after imposing a penalty

I9I1205
1 As soon as practicable after imposing a penalty under paragraph 4, the CAA must—
a give a notice to the person on whom the penalty is imposed;
b publish the notice.
2 The notice must—
a state that the CAA has imposed a penalty;
b state the amount of the penalty;
c specify the requirement in the enforcement order and the contravention in respect of which it is given;
d specify a reasonable period within which the penalty must be paid or reasonable periods within which different portions of the penalty must be paid.
3 In the case of a penalty calculated entirely or partly by reference to a daily amount (see paragraph 8), the notice must specify—
a the day on which the daily amounts begin to accumulate;
b the day on which, or the circumstances in which, they cease to accumulate.
4 As soon as practicable after daily amounts cease to accumulate, the CAA must—
a give a notice to the person on whom the penalty was imposed confirming the day on which they ceased to accumulate;
b publish the notice.

Amount of penalty

I10I1216
1 The amount of a penalty imposed on a person under paragraph 4 must be the amount that the CAA determines to be—
a appropriate, and
b proportionate to the contravention for which it is imposed.
2 The penalty may consist of either or both of the following—
a a fixed amount (see paragraph 7);
b a daily amount (see paragraph 8).
3 In determining the amount of a penalty, the CAA must have regard, in particular, to any steps taken by the person on whom the penalty is to be imposed for contravening a requirement of an enforcement order towards—
a complying with, or remedying the consequences of the contravention of, the requirement of the order;
b complying with, or remedying the consequences of the contravention of, the direction requirement specified in the order.

Amount of penalty: fixed amount

I11I1227A penalty imposed on a person under paragraph 4 must not consist of or include a fixed amount exceeding 10% of the person's turnover.

Amount of penalty: daily amounts

I12I1238
1 A penalty imposed on a person under paragraph 4 must not consist of or include a daily amount exceeding 0.1% of the person's turnover.
2 A daily amount is payable in respect of each day in a period specified by the CAA in the notice under paragraph 5.
3 A specified period during which daily amounts accumulate must be the period that the CAA considers appropriate, subject to sub-paragraphs (4) and (5).
4 The period must begin after the day on which the CAA gives the notice under paragraph 5.
5 The period must end before—
a the day on which the person takes the steps specified under paragraph 2(2)(b) in the enforcement order, or
b if those steps are taken on different days, the last of those days.

Withdrawal of penalties

I13I1249
1 If the CAA withdraws a penalty, the CAA must give a notice to the person on whom the penalty was imposed that includes its reasons for withdrawing the penalty.
2 As soon as practicable after giving a notice under sub-paragraph (1), the CAA must publish the notice.

Recovering penalties

I14I12510
1 This paragraph applies if all or part of a penalty imposed on a person under paragraph 4 is not paid within the period allowed for payment under the notice given in respect of the penalty under paragraph 5.
2 The unpaid balance carries interest from time to time at the rate for the time being specified in section 17 of the Judgments Act 1838.
3 The CAA may recover from the person as a debt due to the CAA—
a the unpaid balance, and
b any interest on the penalty that has not been paid.
4 Any sums received by the CAA by way of a penalty or interest under this Schedule must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.

Statement of policy on penalties

I15I12611
1 The CAA must prepare and publish a statement of its policy with respect to—
a imposing penalties under this Schedule, and
b determining their amount.
2 The CAA may revise the statement of policy and, if it does so, it must publish the revised statement.
3 When imposing a penalty under this Schedule, or determining the amount of that penalty, the CAA must have regard to the last statement of policy published before the contravention in respect of which the penalty is to be imposed.
4 When preparing or revising a statement of policy, the CAA must consult any persons that it considers appropriate.

Turnover

I16I12712
1 For the purposes of paragraphs 7 and 8(1), a person's turnover is to be determined in accordance with regulations made by the Secretary of State.
2 Regulations under this paragraph may, in particular, make provision as to—
a the amounts which are, or which are not, to be treated as comprising a person's turnover;
b the period by reference to which a person's turnover is to be determined;
c the circumstances in which a person's turnover may be determined by reference to estimated amounts (including amounts estimated by the CAA);
d the determination of a person's turnover (in whole or in part) by reference to accounting rules specified or described in the regulations.

PART 2  Appeals

Appeals against enforcement orders

I17I12813
1 A person may appeal to the Tribunal against—
a an enforcement order given to the person;
b a modification of an enforcement order given to the person.
2 The appeal may be against one or more of the following—
a the decision to give the order;
b the decision as to the steps specified in the order;
c the decision as to the period allowed for taking those steps;
d the decision to modify the order.
3 The making of an appeal under this paragraph suspends the effect of the order or the modification (as the case may be) until the appeal is decided or withdrawn, unless the Tribunal orders otherwise.

Appeals against penalties

I18I12914
1 A person may appeal to the Tribunal against a penalty imposed on the person under paragraph 4.
2 The appeal may be against one or more of the following—
a the decision to impose the penalty;
b the decision as to the amount of the penalty;
c in the case of a penalty calculated entirely or partly by reference to a daily amount, the decision as to the period during which the daily amounts accumulate;
d the decision as to the period allowed for payment of the penalty.
3 Where a person appeals under this paragraph against a penalty, the CAA may not require the person to pay the penalty until the appeal is decided or withdrawn.

Decisions on appeal

I19I13015
1 The Tribunal may allow an appeal under paragraph 13 or 14 only to the extent that it is satisfied that the decision appealed against was wrong on one or more of the following grounds—
a that the decision was based on an error of fact;
b that the decision was wrong in law;
c that an error was made in the exercise of a discretion.
2 If the Tribunal allows an appeal under paragraph 13, the Tribunal may set aside or confirm the enforcement order or the modification (as the case may be).
3 If the Tribunal does not allow an appeal under paragraph 13, the Tribunal must confirm the enforcement order or the modification (as the case may be).
4 If the Tribunal allows an appeal under paragraph 14, the Tribunal may—
a set aside or confirm the penalty;
b vary the amount of the penalty;
c vary a period referred to in paragraph 14(2)(c) or (d).
5 If the Tribunal does not allow an appeal under paragraph 14, the Tribunal must confirm the penalty.

Further appeals

I20I13116
1 An appeal lies to the appropriate court on a point of law arising from a decision of the Tribunal under paragraph 15.
2 An appeal under this paragraph may be brought by a party to the proceedings before the Tribunal.
3 An appeal may not be brought without the permission of—
a the Tribunal, or
b the appropriate court.
4 In this paragraph “the appropriate court”—
a in the case of an appeal from proceedings in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, means the Court of Appeal;
b in the case of an appeal from proceedings in Scotland, means the Court of Session.

PART 3  Interpretation

Definitions

I21I13217In this Schedule—
  • “contravention” means a failure to comply and related expressions are to be interpreted accordingly;
  • “contravention notice” has the meaning given in paragraph 1(1);
  • “direction requirement”, in relation to a person, means any requirement imposed on the person by a direction given under section 2 or 3;
  • “enforcement order” has the meaning given in paragraph 2(1);
  • “representation period”, in relation to a contravention notice, has the meaning given in paragraph 1(6);
  • “the Tribunal” means the Competition Appeal Tribunal.

I63SCHEDULE 3 

Modification of licence conditions under section 11 of the Transport Act 2000: appeals

Section 9

I63

After section 19 of the Transport Act 2000 insert—

I59SCHEDULE 4 

New Schedule A1 to the Transport Act 2000

Section 9

I59

This Schedule sets out the new Schedule A1 to the Transport Act 2000, to be inserted before Schedule 1 to that Act—

I61SCHEDULE 5 

New Schedule B1 to the Transport Act 2000

Section 10

I61

This Schedule sets out the new Schedule B1 to the Transport Act 2000, to be inserted after Schedule A1 to that Act (inserted by section 9 above)—

I62SCHEDULE 6 

New Schedule C1 to the Transport Act 2000

Section 10

I62

This Schedule sets out the new Schedule C1 to the Transport Act 2000, to be inserted after Schedule B1 to that Act (inserted by section 10 above)—

SCHEDULE 7 

Air traffic services: consequential amendments

Section 11

Transport Act 2000 (c.38)

I641
1 Section 7 of the Transport Act 2000 (licences: provisions) is amended as follows.
2 Omit subsection (5).
3 After subsection (6) insert—
I652
1 Section 10 of that Act (breach of duties or conditions) is amended as follows.
2 In subsection (1), in paragraph (b), for “condition of a licence” substitute “ licence condition ”.
3 In subsection (2), for paragraph (b) substitute—
I663In section 19 of that Act (modification by order under other enactments), in subsection (1), for “conditions of a licence” substitute “ licence conditions ”.
I674
1 Section 28 of that Act (power to make air traffic administration order) is amended as follows.
2 In subsection (4), for paragraph (b) substitute—
.
3 In subsection (5)—
a in paragraph (a), for “a final or provisional order” substitute “ an enforcement order or an urgent enforcement order ”;
b in paragraph (b), for “proceedings under section 23” substitute “ an appeal under section 19A ”.
4 For subsection (7) substitute—
I685In section 30 of that Act (petitions and orders: supplementary), in subsection (3)(b), for “section 20 above” substitute “ Schedule B1 to this Act ”.
I696
1 Section 35 of that Act (register) is amended as follows.
2 In subsection (3), in paragraph (c), for “the conditions of a licence” substitute “ licence conditions ”.
3 In that subsection, for paragraph (g) substitute—
I707
1 Section 40 of that Act (interpretation) is amended as follows.
2 In subsection (1), after paragraph (a) insert—
.
3 In that subsection omit paragraph (b).
4 In that subsection, after paragraph (d) insert—
.
5 In that subsection, after paragraph (h) insert—
6 For subsection (6) substitute—
7 After subsection (7) insert—
I718After section 40 of that Act insert—
I729
1 Section 103 of that Act (orders and regulations) is amended as follows.
2 In subsection (5)—
a before “51” insert “ 11, 19A, 40A, ”;
b after “94” insert “ , paragraph 14 of Schedule B1 or paragraph 2 of Schedule C1 ”.
3 In subsection (6), after “51” insert “ , and no regulations are to be made under section 11, 19A or 40A, paragraph 14 of Schedule B1 or paragraph 2 of Schedule C1, ”.
4 In subsection (9), after “section 6” insert “ or 11 ”.
I7310In section 104 of that Act (directions), after subsection (2) insert—

Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (c. 24)

I7411In Schedule 4 to the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (the Competition and Markets Authority), in paragraph 48(4)(c), after sub-paragraph (iib) insert—
.

SCHEDULE 8 

Unmanned aircraft: powers of police officers and prison authorities

Section 13

PART 1 General powers of police officers

Power of constable to require an unmanned aircraft to be grounded

I22I841
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph if the constable has reasonable grounds for believing that a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place.
2 The constable may require a person to ground the aircraft if—
a the constable has reasonable grounds for believing that the person is controlling the unmanned aircraft, and
b the constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the unmanned aircraft has been, is, or is likely to be, involved in the commission of an offence (including an offence under this Act).
3 A person is guilty of an offence if—
a the person without reasonable excuse fails to comply with a requirement under this paragraph, and
b the person is controlling the unmanned aircraft.
4 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.

Power of constable to stop and search persons or vehicles

I23I852
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph if the constable is in a place to which the constable lawfully has access (whether or not it is a place to which the public has access).
2 The constable may search—
a a person,
b a vehicle, or
c anything which is in or on a vehicle,
if Condition A, Condition B or Condition C is satisfied.
3 Condition A is that the constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that—
a the constable will find an unmanned aircraft or an article associated with an unmanned aircraft, and
b the unmanned aircraft, or the article associated with an unmanned aircraft, is or has been involved in the commission of—
i an offence under article 94A or 240 of the ANO 2016, F7...
ia an offence under regulation 2(2) or 3(2) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), or
ii any relevant prison offence.
4 Condition B is that the constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that—
a the constable will find an unmanned aircraft or an article associated with an unmanned aircraft,
b the unmanned aircraft, or the article associated with an unmanned aircraft, is or has been involved in the commission of—
i an offence under article 239(4) of the ANO 2016,
ii a relevant offence under regulation 3(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025, or
iii a relevant offence under article 265E(7) of the ANO 2016, and
c the commission of that offence involves or involved the use of the unmanned aircraft, or the article associated with an unmanned aircraft, for one or more of the following purposes—
i to endanger any other aircraft (whether or not an unmanned aircraft);
ii to cause any person harm, harassment, alarm or distress;
iii to undermine security or good order and discipline in any prison or in any other institution where persons are lawfully detained;
iv to damage property (including land or buildings);
v to threaten national security.
5 Condition C is that the constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that—
a the constable will find an article which is or has been involved in the commission of any relevant prison offence, and
b the commission of that offence involves or involved the use of an unmanned aircraft.
6 A constable may seize anything that the constable discovers in the course of a search under this paragraph if the constable has reasonable grounds for believing that it is evidence in relation to—
a an offence under any of these provisions of the ANO 2016—
i article 94A (certain unmanned aircraft: permission for flights over or near aerodromes);
ii article 239(4) (prohibited or restricted flying);
iii article 240 (endangering safety of an aircraft);
F10iv . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
F12v . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
aa an offence under any of these provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025—
i regulation 2(2) (various requirements under the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation relating to UAS operators);
ii regulation 3(2) (various requirements under the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation relating to remote pilots);
b a relevant offence under regulation 3(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025;
c a relevant offence under article 265E(7) of the ANO 2016; or
d a relevant prison offence.

Power to enter and search premises under warrant

I24I753
1 If a justice of the peace is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for believing that articles to which this paragraph applies are on any premises, the justice of the peace may issue a warrant authorising a constable to—
a enter and search the premises, and
b seize anything found there which the constable has reason to believe is such an article.
2 This paragraph applies to an article if it is—
a an unmanned aircraft, or
b an article associated with an unmanned aircraft,
which has been involved in the commission of a relevant unmanned aircraft offence.
3 The power to search conferred by sub-paragraph (1)(a) is only a power to search to the extent that is reasonably required for the purpose of discovering—
a an unmanned aircraft, or
b an article associated with an unmanned aircraft.
4 In England and Wales, sections 15 and 16 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (execution of search warrants and safeguards) apply to warrants issued under this paragraph.
5 In Northern Ireland, Articles 17 and 18 of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (execution of search warrants and safeguards) apply to warrants issued under this paragraph.
6 In Scotland—
a a warrant under this paragraph may be issued on the application of a constable or a procurator fiscal;
b the application must be supported by evidence on oath;
c the person applying for the warrant must answer on oath any question that the justice of the peace, summary sheriff or sheriff hearing the application asks the person;
d in the case of an application made by a procurator fiscal, that requirement may be met by a constable;
e a warrant under this paragraph may authorise persons to accompany any constable who is executing it if the justice, summary sheriff or sheriff issuing the warrant is satisfied that their presence is likely to be helpful to the search;
f a person so authorised may exercise any power conferred by the warrant, but only in the company of, and under the supervision of, a constable.
7 In the application of this paragraph to Scotland, for each reference to a justice of the peace (except those in sub-paragraph (6)) substitute references to a justice of the peace or a summary sheriff or a sheriff.
8 In the application of this paragraph to Northern Ireland, for each reference to a justice of the peace substitute a reference to a lay magistrate.

Supplementary powers

I25I764
1 A constable may if necessary use reasonable force for the purpose of exercising a power conferred by this Schedule.
2 In England and Wales, section 22(1) to (4) and (7) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (retention) apply to anything seized under this Schedule.
3 In Northern Ireland, Article 24(1) to (4) and (7) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (retention) apply to anything seized under this Schedule.
4 Sub-paragraphs (5) and (6) apply in relation to Scotland.
5 Anything seized under this Schedule may be retained for as long as is necessary in all the circumstances and in particular—
a for use as evidence at a trial for a relevant unmanned aircraft offence, or
b for forensic examination or for investigation in connection with a relevant unmanned aircraft offence.
6 An item may not be retained for either of the purposes mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) if a photograph or a copy would be sufficient for that purpose.
7 The powers conferred by this Schedule are in addition to any power otherwise conferred.

Meaning of “relevant unmanned aircraft offence”

I26I865In this Schedule “relevant unmanned aircraft offence” means—
a an offence under this Act;
b any of these offences under the ANO 2016—
i an offence under article 94A(1) or 239(4) of the ANO 2016;
F16ii . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
iii a relevant offence under article 265E(7) of the ANO 2016;
iv an offence under the law of Scotland which arises under any other provision of the ANO 2016 and relates to unmanned aircraft, except an offence which is triable only summarily;
ba an offence under regulation 2(2) or 3(2) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025;
bb a relevant offence under regulation 3(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025;
c an offence under any of these provisions—
i section 40C(2) or (3) of the Prison Act 1952;
ii section 34B(2) or (3) of the Prison Act (Northern Ireland) 1953;
iii section 41 or 41ZA of the Prisons (Scotland) Act 1989;
d a Scottish common law prison offence.

Meaning of “relevant offence under regulation 3(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025”

I27I876In this Schedule “relevant offence under regulation 3(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025” means an offence under regulation 3(3) of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 committed by the contravention of a relevant requirement set out or referred to in any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025—
a regulation 3(5)(a), (h), (i) or (j);
b regulation 3(6);
c regulation 3(7)(e), but only insofar as that requirement (to comply with authorised limitations and conditions) regulates the operation of an unmanned aircraft during flight;
d regulation 3(7)(f), (g) or (i);
e regulation 3(8), but only insofar as that requirement (conditions under which operations in the framework of the model aircraft clubs or associations may be conducted) regulates the operation of an unmanned aircraft during flight.

Meaning of “relevant offence under article 265E(7) of the ANO 2016”

I28I887In this Schedule “relevant offence under article 265E(7) of the ANO 2016” means an offence under article 265E(7) of the ANO 2016 committed by the contravention of a relevant requirement set out or referred to in any of the following provisions of the ANO 2016—
a article 265E(2)(a)(vi), (vii) or (viii);
b article 265E(2)(b)(ix), (x) or (xi);
c article 265E(5)(a);
d article 265E(6).

Meaning of “relevant prison offence”

I29I898In this Schedule “relevant prison offence” means—
a an offence under any of these provisions of the Prison Act 1952—
i section 39 (assisting a prisoner to escape);
ii section 40B (conveyance etc of List A articles into or out of prison);
iii section 40C (conveyance etc of List B or C articles into or out of prison);
iv section 40CB (throwing articles into prison);
b an offence under any of these provisions of the Prison Act (Northern Ireland) 1953—
i section 29(1) (assisting escape from lawful custody);
ii section 33 (facilitating escape by conveying things into prison);
iii section 34A (conveyance etc of List A articles into or out of prison);
iv section 34B (conveyance etc of List B or C articles into or out of prison);
c an offence under either of these provisions of the Prisons (Scotland) Act 1989—
i section 41 (unlawful introduction of proscribed articles into a prison);
ii section 41ZA (provision to and use by prisoners of personal communication devices);
d a Scottish common law prison offence.

Meaning of “Scottish common law prison offence”

I30I909
1 In this Schedule “Scottish common law prison offence” means—
a an offence at common law in Scotland committed by assisting a prisoner in a penal institution in Scotland in escaping or attempting to escape from the institution;
b an offence at common law in Scotland committed by, intending to facilitate the escape of a prisoner from a penal institution in Scotland, doing any of the following things—
i bringing, throwing or otherwise conveying anything into the institution;
ii causing another person to bring, throw or otherwise convey anything into the institution;
iii giving anything to a prisoner or leaving anything in any place (whether inside or outside the institution).
2 In this paragraph—
  • “penal institution” has the meaning given by section 108 of the Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act 2016;
  • “prisoner” means a person who is detained or imprisoned in such an institution.

Other interpretation

I31I9110
1 In this Schedule—
  • “article associated with an unmanned aircraft” includes—
    1. any component, part or product of an unmanned aircraft, and
    2. any equipment, including an electronic device, relating to an unmanned aircraft;
  • “premises” includes any place and, in particular, includes—
    1. any vehicle;
    2. any offshore installation;
    3. any renewable energy installation (that expression having the same meaning as in Chapter 2 of Part 2 of the Energy Act 2004);
    4. any tent or movable structure;
  • “property” includes land and buildings;
  • “vehicle” includes any vessel, aircraft (whether or not an unmanned aircraft) or hovercraft.
2 A reference in this Schedule to a provision of subordinate legislation (whenever the reference is passed or made) is a reference to that provision as it has effect from time to time.
3 Sub-paragraph (2) is subject to any contrary provision made in subordinate legislation.

PART 2 Powers of police officers and prison authorities under Police Act 1997

Authorisations to interfere with property etc

I32I7711
1 Section 93 of the Police Act 1997 (authorisations to interfere with property etc) is amended as follows.
2 In subsection (2), in paragraph (a), for “serious crime” substitute
.
3 After subsection (2AA) insert—
4 After subsection (2AB) insert—
5 After subsection (2AC) insert—
6 After subsection (2AD) insert—
7 In subsection (3), after paragraph (aa) insert—
.
8 In subsection (3), after paragraph (da) insert—
.
9 In subsection (3), after paragraph (db) insert—
.
10 In subsection (3), after paragraph (dc) insert—
.
11 After subsection (4) insert—
12 In subsection (5), after paragraph (ee) insert—
.
13 In subsection (5), after paragraph (ha) insert—
.
14 In subsection (5), after paragraph (hb) insert—
.
15 In subsection (5), after paragraph (hc) insert—
.
16 In subsection (6), after paragraph (cb) insert—
.
17 In subsection (6), after paragraph (cba) insert—
.
18 In subsection (6), after paragraph (cbb) insert—
.
19 In subsection (6), after paragraph (cbc) insert—
.
20 After subsection (7) insert—
I33I7812
1 Section 94 of the Police Act 1997 (authorisations given in absence of authorising officer) is amended as follows.
2 In subsection (1)—
a in paragraph (a), omit the final “or”;
b after paragraph (b) insert—
.
3 In subsection (1), after paragraph (ba) insert—
.
4 In subsection (1), after paragraph (bb) insert—
5 In subsection (2), after paragraph (dd) insert—
.
6 In subsection (2), after paragraph (fa) insert—
.
7 In subsection (2), after paragraph (fb) insert—
.
8 In subsection (2), after paragraph (fc) insert—
.
9 In subsection (4), after paragraph (b) insert—
.
10 In subsection (4), after paragraph (ba) insert—
.
11 In subsection (4), after paragraph (bb) insert—
12 After subsection (4) insert—
13 After subsection (4A) insert—
14 After subsection (4B) insert—

SCHEDULE 9 

Unmanned aircraft: powers of police officers relating to ANO 2016 and the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025

Section 14

Provision by remote pilots of evidence of competency

I341
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—
a has reasonable grounds for believing that—
i a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and
ii P is or was the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
b has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a relevant competency requirement is or was applicable as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
2 The constable may require P to provide such evidence as the constable considers reasonable of P's compliance, as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, with a relevant competency requirement.
3 In this paragraph “relevant competency requirement” means a requirement imposed by, or referred to in —
a article 265E(2)(b)(ii) of the ANO 2016 (tethered small unmanned aircraft of 250g or more: competency);
b any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284)—
i regulation 3(5)(b) (open category: having the appropriate competency in the intended sub-category of flight);
ii regulation 3(5)(c) (open category: carrying proof of competency);
iii regulation 3(7)(b) (specific category: having the appropriate competency);
iv regulation 3(7)(c) (specific category: carrying proof of competency);
v regulation 3(8) (specific category: having the appropriate competency specified in the authorisation relating to the flight).
4 P is guilty of an offence if—
a P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide evidence of P's compliance, as respects an unmanned aircraft and a flight, with a relevant competency requirement,
b P is or was the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
c the relevant competency requirement is or was applicable as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
5 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.
6 Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision by remote pilots of information about UAS operators

I352
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—
a has reasonable grounds for believing that—
i a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and
ii P is or was the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft, and
b has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a relevant registration requirement is or was applicable as respects the UAS operator for the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
2 The constable may require P to provide such information as the constable considers reasonable as to the identity of—
a the person or persons who are or were the UAS operator for the flight, or
b the person or persons who made the unmanned aircraft available for use by P.
3 In this paragraph “relevant registration requirement” means a requirement imposed by, or referred to in —
a any of the following provisions of the ANO 2016—
i article 265E(1)(a) (registration of tethered small unmanned aircraft F28...);
ii article 265E(1)(b) (display of registration number of tethered small unmanned aircraft F29...);
b any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025—
i regulation 2(5)(a) (open category: registration of UAS operator);
ii regulation 2(5)(b) (open category: display of UAS operator's registration number);
iii regulation 2(6)(a) (specific category: registration of UAS operator);
iv regulation 2(6)(b) (specific category: display of UAS operator's registration number);
v regulation 2(7)(a) (specific category: registration of UAS operator);
vi regulation 2(7)(b) (specific category: display of UAS operator's registration number);
vii regulation 2(9)(a) (specific category: registration of UAS operator);
viii regulation 2(9)(b) (specific category: display of UAS operator's registration number).
4 P is guilty of an offence if—
a P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide, as respects a flight by an unmanned aircraft, information as to the identity of a person,
b P is or was the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight,
c the relevant registration requirement which the constable had reasonable grounds for suspecting is or was applicable as respects the UAS operator for the unmanned aircraft and the flight is or was so applicable, and
d at the time when the constable imposed the requirement, P could have provided information of the kind which the constable required P to provide.
5 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.
6 Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision by UAS operators of evidence of registration

I363
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—
a has reasonable grounds for believing that—
i a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and
ii P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
b has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a relevant registration requirement is or was applicable as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
2 The constable may require P to provide such evidence as the constable considers reasonable of P's compliance, as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, with a relevant registration requirement.
3 In this paragraph “relevant registration requirement” has the same meaning as in paragraph 2.
4 P is guilty of an offence if—
a P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide evidence of P's compliance, as respects the flight, with a relevant registration requirement,
b P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
c the relevant registration requirement is or was applicable as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
5 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.
6 Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision by UAS operators of information about remote pilots

I374
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—
a has reasonable grounds for believing that—
i a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and
ii P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
b has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a relevant competency requirement is or was applicable as respects the remote pilot for the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
2 The constable may require P to provide such information as the constable considers reasonable as to the identity of the person or persons who are or were the remote pilot or remote pilots of the unmanned aircraft for the flight.
3 In this paragraph “relevant competency requirement” has the same meaning as in paragraph 1.
4 P is guilty of an offence if—
a P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide information as to the identity of a person,
b P is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight,
c the relevant competency requirement which the constable had reasonable grounds for suspecting is or was applicable as respects the remote pilot for the unmanned aircraft and the flight is or was so applicable, and
d at the time when the constable imposed the requirement, P could have provided information of the kind which the constable required P to provide.
5 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.
6 Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision by remote pilots or UAS operators of other information etc

I385
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable has reasonable grounds for believing that—
a a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and
b P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight.
2 The constable may require P to provide such information, documentation or evidence that is of a specified description as the constable considers reasonable.
3 In this paragraph “specified description” means a description specified by the Secretary of State by regulations for the purposes of this paragraph.
4 Regulations under this paragraph that specify a description of information, documentation or evidence may provide for conditions that must be met before a constable may require P to provide information, documentation or evidence that is within that description.
5 P is guilty of an offence if—
a P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide information, documentation or evidence,
b P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
c at the time when the constable imposed the requirement, P could have provided information, documentation or evidence of the kind which the constable required P to provide.
6 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.
7 Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision of evidence of consents for certain flights

I396
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—
a has reasonable grounds for believing that—
i a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and
ii P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
b has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a provision of the ANO 2016 or the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 is or was being contravened unless a relevant consent is or was applicable as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
2 The constable may require P to provide, as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, such evidence as the constable considers reasonable of a relevant consent.
3 In this paragraph “relevant consent” means a permission, operational authorisation, LUC, authorisation or certification required by, or referred to in
a any of the following provisions of the ANO 2016—
i article 94A (permission for flights over or near aerodromes);
ii article 265E(3) (tethered small unmanned aircraft: permission from CAA);
b any of the following provisions of the Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025—
i regulation 2(1)(b) (operational authorisation, LUC with appropriate privileges, or authorisation);
ii regulation 2(1)(c) (certification of UAS and UAS operator);
iii regulation 3(1)(b) (operational authorisation, LUC with appropriate privileges, or authorisation);
iv regulation 3(1)(c) (certification of UAS and UAS operator).
4 P is guilty of an offence if—
a P fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide, as respects a flight by an unmanned aircraft, evidence of a relevant consent,
b P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
c the relevant consent is or was applicable as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
5 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.
6 Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Provision of evidence of exemptions for certain flights

I407
1 A constable may exercise the power conferred by this paragraph in relation to a person (P) if the constable—
a has reasonable grounds for believing that—
i a flight by an unmanned aircraft is taking place or has taken place, and
ii P is or was, as respects the flight, the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft, and
b has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a provision of the ANO 2016 is or was being contravened unless an ANO exemption is or was applicable as respects—
i a person and the unmanned aircraft and the flight, or
ii the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
2 The constable may require P to provide, as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, such evidence as the constable considers reasonable of an ANO exemption.
3 In this paragraph “ANO exemption” means an exemption under article 266 of the ANO 2016.
4 The evidence which a constable may require a person to provide under this paragraph includes evidence of the applicability of an ANO exemption to a person, or the unmanned aircraft, as respects the flight.
5 P is guilty of an offence if—
a P without reasonable excuse fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under this paragraph to provide, as respects P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight, or as respects the unmanned aircraft and the flight, evidence of an ANO exemption,
b P is or was the remote pilot or the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft for the flight, and
c the ANO exemption is or was applicable as respects—
i P and the unmanned aircraft and the flight, or
ii the unmanned aircraft and the flight.
6 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 2 on the standard scale.
7 Paragraph 10 includes a defence to the offence under this paragraph.

Power to inspect unmanned aircraft in connection with other powers

I418
1 A constable may require a person in possession of an unmanned aircraft to allow the constable to inspect it if the constable considers that the inspection would assist the constable in deciding whether a power conferred by any of paragraphs 1 to 7 is exercisable.
2 A constable may if necessary use reasonable force for the purpose of exercising the power conferred by this paragraph.
3 A person who fails to comply with a requirement imposed under this paragraph is guilty of an offence.
4 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.

Offence of providing false or misleading information etc

I429
1 A person commits an offence if—
a anything that the person provides under this Schedule is false or misleading in a material respect, and
b the person either—
i knows that it is false or misleading, or
ii is reckless as to whether it is false or misleading.
2 A person who is guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale.

Provision of information etc at a police station

I4310
1 A person (P) may comply with a requirement imposed by a constable under any of paragraphs 1 to 7 by providing what the constable required at a police station specified by P at the time when the constable imposed the requirement (the “nominated police station”)—
a within seven days beginning with the day after which the constable imposed the requirement, or
b if it is not reasonably practicable to do so within that seven day period, as soon after the end of that period as is reasonably practicable.
2 It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under any of paragraphs 1 to 7 in respect of a failure to comply with a requirement imposed by a constable to prove that it was not reasonably practicable to provide what the constable required at the nominated police station before the day on which the proceedings were commenced.
3 For that purpose, the proceedings against a person for an offence are commenced when—
a in the case of proceedings in England and Wales—
i an information is laid for the offence,
ii the person is charged with the offence under Part 4 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, or
iii a written charge is issued against the person for the offence under section 29 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003;
b in the case of proceedings in Scotland, a complaint is served on the person in respect of the offence;
c in the case of proceedings in Northern Ireland—
i a summons or warrant is issued under Article 20 of the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 in respect of the person and the offence,
ii a summons is issued under section 93 of the Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 2015 in respect of the person and the offence, or
iii the person is charged with the offence after being taken into custody without a warrant.

Interpretation

I4411
1 In this Schedule the following expressions have the same meanings as in the ANO 2016 (see Schedule 1 to the ANO 2016)— “ remote pilot ”; “ UAS operator ”.
2 A reference in this Schedule to a provision of subordinate legislation (whenever the reference is passed or made) is a reference to that provision as it has effect from time to time.
3 Sub-paragraph (2) is subject to any contrary provision made in subordinate legislation.

SCHEDULE 10 

Fixed penalties for certain offences relating to unmanned aircraft

Section 15

Power to issue fixed penalty notices

I45I921
1 This paragraph applies where a constable has reason to believe that a person (P) aged 18 or over is committing, or has committed, a fixed penalty offence.
2 The constable may give P a fixed penalty notice in respect of the fixed penalty offence if Condition A and Condition B are met.
3 Condition A: the constable believes that P did not, and did not intend to—
a endanger any other aircraft (whether or not an unmanned aircraft),
b cause any person harm, harassment, alarm or distress,
c cause any person occupying any premises nuisance or annoyance relating to their occupation of the premises,
d undermine security or good order and discipline in any prison or in any other institution where persons are lawfully detained,
e disturb public order, or
f damage property (including land or buildings),
when committing the fixed penalty offence.
4 Condition B: the constable obtains P's name and address.

Fixed penalty offences

I46I792
1 The Secretary of State may, by regulations, prescribe offences as fixed penalty offences for the purposes of this Schedule.
2 The Secretary of State may prescribe an offence only if it is—
a an offence under Part 3 of this Act, or
b an offence relating to unmanned aircraft under subordinate legislation,
which is triable summarily or triable either way.
3 After article 265F of the ANO 2016 insert—
4 That provision inserted into the ANO 2016 may be amended or revoked as if made by an Air Navigation Order.
5 In this paragraph “Air Navigation Order” means an Order in Council under section 60 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982.

Fixed penalty notices

I47I933
1 A “fixed penalty notice” is a notice offering the opportunity of the discharge of any liability to conviction of the fixed penalty offence to which the notice relates by payment of a fixed penalty in accordance with this Schedule.
2 A fixed penalty notice must—
a give reasonable particulars of the circumstances alleged to constitute the fixed penalty offence;
b state the period during which (because of paragraph 4) proceedings will not be instituted for the offence;
c specify the amount of the fixed penalty;
d state the name and address of the person to whom the fixed penalty may be paid;
e specify permissible methods of payment (which may include payment by cash);
f specify permissible means by which a payment may be made (which may include payment by post).
3 A fixed penalty notice may specify two amounts under sub-paragraph (2)(c) and specify that, if the lower of those amounts is paid within a specified period of not more than 14 days, that is the amount of the fixed penalty.
4 Where a fixed penalty notice specifies that payment of a fixed penalty may be made by post using a specified method of payment—
a payment may be made by pre-paying and posting to the person whose name is stated under sub-paragraph (2)(d), at the stated address, a letter containing the amount of the penalty that is paid by the specified method;
b where that is done, payment is regarded as having been made at the time at which that letter would be delivered in the ordinary course of post.

Effect of fixed penalty notice

I48I944
1 This paragraph applies if a person (P) is given a fixed penalty notice in respect of a fixed penalty offence.
2 No proceedings may be instituted for the offence during the 21 day response period.
3 But that prohibition ceases to apply if, during the 21 day response period, P has given notice requesting a hearing in respect of the offence in the manner specified in the fixed penalty notice.
4 P may not be convicted of the offence if P pays the fixed penalty during the 21 day response period.
5 In this paragraph “21 day response period” means the period of 21 days beginning with the day after the day on which the fixed penalty notice is given.

Amount of fixed penalty

I49I955
1 The fixed penalty for a fixed penalty offence is to be prescribed by the Secretary of State by regulations; and where two amounts are specified in accordance with paragraph 3(3), the higher of those amounts must be the prescribed fixed penalty.
2 The fixed penalty prescribed for a fixed penalty offence may not exceed—
a one half of the maximum amount of the fine to which a person committing that offence would be liable on summary conviction, or
b where there is no such maximum amount, the amount corresponding to level 4 on the standard scale for summary offences.

Supplementary provision

I50I966
1 The Secretary of State may, by regulations, make—
a provision about the form of, and information to be included in, fixed penalty notices;
b provision about the consequences of providing false statements in connection with fixed penalty notices, including provision creating criminal offences;
c provision about procedure after a fixed penalty notice is given, including provision about appeals.
2 Regulations under this paragraph may amend or repeal provision contained in an Act of Parliament.

Issuing of registration documents

I51I977
1 This paragraph applies if, by the end of the 21 day response period, the person (P) given the fixed penalty notice has not—
a paid the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice, or
b requested a hearing.
2 If the fixed penalty notice was issued in respect of an offence committed in England and Wales, the chief officer of police may, in respect of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice, issue a registration document.
3 If the fixed penalty notice was issued in respect of an offence committed in Scotland, the chief officer of police must issue a registration document.
4 If the fixed penalty notice was issued in respect of an offence committed in Northern Ireland, the chief officer of police may, in respect of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice, issue a registration document.
5 In this Schedule “registration document” means a document which—
a states that the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice is registrable for enforcement against P as a fine,
b gives particulars of the offence to which the fixed penalty notice relates, and
c states the name and last known address of P and the amount of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice.
6 In this paragraph—
  • “chief officer of police”, in relation to a fixed penalty notice, means the chief officer of the police force in which the constable who gave the notice serves;
  • “21 day response period” has the meaning given in paragraph 4(5).

Sending of registration documents

I52I988
1 Where—
a a person (P) is given a fixed penalty notice in respect of a fixed penalty offence, and
b a registration document is issued by a person (R) under paragraph 7 in respect of the penalty specified in the fixed penalty notice,
R must cause the registration document to be sent to the relevant recipient.
2 If P appears to R to reside in England and Wales, the relevant recipient is the designated officer for the local justice area in which P appears to R to reside.
3 If P appears to R to reside in Scotland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to R to reside.
4 If P appears to R to reside in Northern Ireland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of petty sessions.
5 If there is no relevant recipient under any of sub-paragraphs (2) to (4), the relevant recipient is to be determined under sub-paragraphs (6) to (8).
6 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in England and Wales, the relevant recipient is the designated officer for the local justice area in which the offence was committed.
7 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.
8 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, the relevant recipient is the clerk of petty sessions.

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to designated officer in England and Wales

I53I809
1 Where the designated officer for a local justice area (D) receives a registration document in respect of the penalty specified in a fixed penalty notice given to a person (P) the registration document must be dealt with in accordance with this paragraph.
2 That duty applies whether D receives the registration document under paragraph 8, this paragraph or paragraph 10 or 11.
3 If it appears to D that P resides in the local justice area for which D is the designated officer, D must register the amount of the penalty as a fine in that area by entering it in the register of a magistrates' court acting in that area.
4 If it appears to D that P resides in any other local justice area in England and Wales, D must send the registration document to the designated officer for that area.
5 If it appears to D that P resides in Scotland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to D to reside.
6 If it appears to D that P resides in Northern Ireland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.
7 If the registration document is not dealt with under any of sub-paragraphs (3) to (6), it must be dealt with under sub-paragraphs (8) to (11).
8 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in the local justice area for which D is the designated officer, D must register the amount of the penalty as a fine in that area by entering it in the register of a magistrates' court acting in that area.
9 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in any other local justice area in England and Wales, D must send the registration document to the designated officer for that area.
10 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.
11 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, D must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.
12 If D registers the amount of the penalty as a fine under this paragraph, D must give P notice of the registration.
13 The notice must—
a specify the amount of the penalty registered, and
b give the information with respect to the fixed penalty offence, and the authority for registration, which was included in the registration document under paragraph 7.
14 On the registration of the amount of the penalty as a fine under this paragraph, any enactment referring (in whatever terms) to a fine imposed or other sum adjudged to be paid on the conviction of a magistrates' court is to have effect in the case in question as if the amount so registered were a fine imposed by the magistrates' court on the conviction of P on the date of the registration.
15 Accordingly, in the application by virtue of this paragraph of the provisions of the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 relating to the satisfaction and enforcement of sums adjudged to be paid on the conviction of a magistrates' court, section 85 of that Act (power to remit a fine in whole or in part) is not excluded by subsection (2) of that section (references in that section to a fine not to include any other sum adjudged to be paid on a conviction) from applying to a sum registered in a magistrates' court by virtue of this paragraph.

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to clerk in Scotland

I54I9910
1 Where the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction (C) receives a registration document in respect of the penalty specified in a fixed penalty notice given to a person (P), the registration document must be dealt with in accordance with this paragraph.
2 That duty applies whether C receives the registration document under paragraph 8 or 9, this paragraph or paragraph 11.
3 If it appears to C that P resides in the area of the court, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by that court.
4 If it appears to C that P resides in Scotland but not in the area of C's court, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to reside.
5 If it appears to C that P resides in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which P appears to C to reside.
6 If it appears to C that P resides in Northern Ireland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.
7 If the registration document is not dealt with under any of sub-paragraphs (3) to (6), it must be dealt with under sub-paragraphs (8) to (11).
8 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in the area of the court, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by that court.
9 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland but not in the area of C's court, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.
10 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which the offence was committed.
11 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of petty sessions.
12 If C registers the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine under this paragraph, C must give P notice of the registration.
13 The notice must—
a specify the amount of the penalty registered, and
b give the information with respect to the fixed penalty offence, and the authority for registration, which was included in the registration document under paragraph 7.
14 On the registration of the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by a court of summary jurisdiction, any enactment referring (in whatever terms) to a fine imposed or other sum adjudged to be paid on the conviction of a court of summary jurisdiction is to have effect in the case in question as if the amount so registered were a fine imposed by the court of summary jurisdiction on the conviction of P on the date of the registration.
15 The reference in sub-paragraph (14) to any enactment includes any enactment comprised in, or in an instrument made under, an Act of the Scottish Parliament.

Registration of fixed penalty: document sent to clerk of petty sessions in Northern Ireland

I55I10011
1 Where the clerk of petty sessions (C) receives a registration document in respect of the penalty specified in a fixed penalty notice given to a person (P), the registration document must be dealt with in accordance with this paragraph.
2 That duty applies whether C receives the registration document under paragraph 8, 9 or 10.
3 If it appears to C that P resides in Northern Ireland, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by entering it in the Order Book of a court of summary jurisdiction.
4 If it appears to C that P resides in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which P appears to C to reside.
5 If it appears to C that P resides in Scotland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which P appears to C to reside.
6 If the registration document is not dealt with under any of sub-paragraphs (3) to (5), it must be dealt with under sub-paragraphs (7) to (9).
7 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Northern Ireland, C must register the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine by entering it in the Order Book of a court of summary jurisdiction.
8 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in England and Wales, C must send the registration document to the designated officer for the local justice area in which the offence was committed.
9 If the fixed penalty offence was committed in Scotland, C must send the registration document to the clerk of a court of summary jurisdiction for the area in which the offence was committed.
10 If C registers the amount of the penalty for enforcement as a fine under this paragraph, C must give P notice of the registration.
11 The notice must—
a specify the amount of the penalty registered,
b require payment of it by such date, not less than 28 days from the date of registration, as may be specified in the notice, and
c give the information with respect to the fixed penalty offence, and the authority for registration, which was included in the registration document under paragraph 7.
12 On the registration of any amount in the Order Book of a court of summary jurisdiction by virtue of this paragraph, any enactment referring (in whatever terms) to a fine imposed or other sum adjudged to be paid on the conviction of such a court is to have effect in the case in question as if the amount so registered were a fine imposed by that court on the conviction of P on the date of the registration.
13 The clerk of petty sessions must refer the case to a district judge (magistrates' courts) for the judge to consider whether to make a collection order; and the order may be made without a court hearing.
14 Where a collection order is made in that case, the date specified in the order as the date by which the sum due must be paid must, unless the court directs otherwise, be the same as the date specified in the notice of registration under sub-paragraph (11)(b).
15 In this paragraph “collection order” means an order under section 3 of the Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 2016.

Bodies corporate & the Crown

I56I10112
1 For the purposes of this Schedule, where a fixed penalty notice is given to a body corporate, the place where that body resides and the address of that body are the registered or principal office of that body.
2 Nothing in this Schedule authorises a fixed penalty notice to be given in respect of the commission of a fixed penalty offence if, by virtue of any immunity of the Crown, no liability to a penalty for commission of the offence would arise.

Interpretation

I57I10213In this Schedule—
  • “court of summary jurisdiction”, in relation to Scotland, has the same meaning as in section 307(1) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995;
  • “fixed penalty notice” has the meaning given in paragraph 3(1);
  • “fixed penalty offence” means an offence prescribed under paragraph 2(1).

SCHEDULE 11 

Amendment and enforcement regulations

Section 16

PART 1  Amendment of provisions that relate to offences

Amendments in consequence of relevant subordinate legislation

1
1 The power to make Air Navigation Orders includes power to make any amendment of this Act which is authorised by sub-paragraph (3) or (4).
2 The Secretary of State may by regulations make any amendment of this Act which is authorised by sub-paragraph (3) or (4).
3 The Order in Council or regulations may make such amendments of Schedule 8 as the appropriate authority considers appropriate for or in connection with—
a maintaining the effect of a provision of that Schedule in a case where it would otherwise cease to be effective because of provision made in any relevant subordinate legislation; or
b extending a provision of that Schedule to apply to an offence relating to unmanned aircraft under relevant subordinate legislation to which the provision does not already apply.
4 The Order in Council or regulations may make such amendments of section 14 and Schedule 9 as the appropriate authority considers appropriate for or in connection with—
a maintaining the effect of a provision of that section or Schedule in a case where it would otherwise cease to be effective because of provision made in any relevant subordinate legislation;
b extending a provision of that section or Schedule to apply to an offence relating to unmanned aircraft under relevant subordinate legislation to which the provision does not already apply; or
c conferring, in consequence of provision made in any relevant subordinate legislation, a police power that corresponds to a power conferred by Schedule 9 as enacted.
5 For the purposes of sub-paragraph (4)(c) each of the following police powers “corresponds to a power conferred by Schedule 9 as enacted”—
a a power to require a person who the constable has reasonable grounds for believing is or was the remote pilot of an unmanned aircraft for a flight (“A”)—
i to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to A's compliance with any requirement relating to A's competency to be the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight;
ii to provide information relating to the identity of a person who is or was the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft, or made the unmanned aircraft available to A, for the flight;
iii to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the existence of a consent which is or was required for the flight; or
iv to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the application to the flight of an exemption from a requirement which would otherwise be applicable to the flight;
b a power to require a person who the constable has reasonable grounds for believing is or was the UAS operator of an unmanned aircraft for a flight (“B”)—
i to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to B's compliance, as respects the flight, with any requirement relating to registration of B as the UAS operator of the unmanned aircraft;
ii to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to B's compliance, as respects the flight, with any requirement relating to registration of the unmanned aircraft;
iii to provide information relating to the identity of a person who is or was the remote pilot of the unmanned aircraft for the flight;
iv to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the existence of a consent which is or was required for the flight;
v to provide information, documentation or other evidence relating to the application to the flight of an exemption from a requirement which would otherwise be applicable to the flight;
c a power to require a person who is in possession of an unmanned aircraft to allow the constable to inspect it—
i if the constable considers that the inspection would assist the constable in deciding whether any other power conferred by Schedule 9 is exercisable;
ii for the purpose of checking whether a requirement to display any number, mark or information on the unmanned aircraft is being complied with.
6 The provision that may be made under sub-paragraph (4)(c) in connection with conferring a police power includes—
a provision authorising a constable to use reasonable force in the exercise of the power;
b provision for a person to be guilty of an offence if the person—
i does not comply with a requirement imposed by a constable in the exercise of the power, or
ii knowingly or recklessly provides a constable exercising the power with information, documentation or evidence that is false or misleading in a material respect.
7 In this paragraph—
  • “appropriate authority” means—
    1. Her Majesty, in relation to an Air Navigation Order;
    2. the Secretary of State, in relation to regulations;
  • “relevant subordinate legislation” means—
    1. an Air Navigation Order;
    2. regulations made under paragraph 3 of this Schedule;
    3. regulations made under Article 57 or 58 of the UK Basic Regulation;
    4. regulations made under Article 15 of the UK Implementing Regulation;
  • “remote pilot”, in relation to an unmanned aircraft, means a person (however described) conducting the flight of the unmanned aircraft (including a person who is a remote pilot within the meaning of the ANO 2016 — see Schedule 1 to the ANO 2016);
  • “UAS operator”, in relation to an unmanned aircraft, means a person (however described) who is the operator of the unmanned aircraft (including a person who is a UAS operator within the meaning of the ANO 2016 — see Schedule 1 to the ANO 2016).

Parliamentary procedure

2In the table in Part 2 of Schedule 13 to the Civil Aviation Act 1982, in the entry relating to section 60 (which sets out the Parliamentary procedure applicable to Air Navigation Orders), in the third column, after “section 60(3)(r)” (provision that is subject to affirmative resolution procedure) insert “ or makes, under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 11 to the Air Traffic Management and Unmanned Aircraft Act 2021, provision authorised by paragraph 1(3)(b) or (4)(b) or (c) of that Schedule; ”.

PART 2  Enforcement of particular EU-derived legislation

Regulations providing for criminal offences or civil penalties

3
1 The Secretary of State may, for the purpose of securing compliance with any relevant legislation, make regulations providing—
a subject to sub-paragraph (2), for persons to be guilty of offences in such circumstances as may be specified in the regulations and to be liable on conviction of those offences to such penalties as may be so specified;
b for the imposition of civil penalties in such circumstances as may be specified in the regulations.
2 The power conferred by sub-paragraph (1)(a) does not include power—
a to provide for offences to be triable only on indictment;
b to authorise the imposition, on summary conviction of any offence, of any term of imprisonment or of a fine exceeding the statutory maximum;
c to authorise the imposition, on conviction on indictment of an offence, of a term of imprisonment exceeding two years.
3 The power conferred by sub-paragraph (1)(b) does not include power to authorise the imposition of a civil penalty of an amount that exceeds the amount of a fine at level 4 on the standard scale.
4 Where regulations under this paragraph make provision for the imposition of a civil penalty, the regulations must also include provision for a right of appeal to a court or tribunal against the imposition of the penalty.
5 The provision that may be made under sub-paragraph (4) includes provision—
a as to the jurisdiction of the court or tribunal to which an appeal may be made;
b as to the grounds on which an appeal may be made;
c as to the procedure for making an appeal (including any fee which may be payable);
d suspending the imposition of the penalty, pending determination of the appeal;
e as to the powers of the court or tribunal to which an appeal is made;
f as to how any sum payable in pursuance of a decision of the court or tribunal is to be recoverable.
6 The provision referred to in sub-paragraph (5)(e) includes provision conferring on the court or tribunal to which an appeal is made power—
a to confirm the penalty;
b to withdraw the penalty;
c to vary the amount of the penalty;
d to award costs.
7 This paragraph does not limit the provision that may be made in an Air Navigation Order.
8 In this paragraph “relevant legislation” means—
a the UK Delegated Regulation or provision made under that Regulation;
b the UK Implementing Regulation or provision made under that Regulation;
c regulations made under Article 57 or 58 of the UK Basic Regulation.

PART 3  Interpretation

Interpretation

4In this Schedule—
  • “Air Navigation Order” means an Order in Council under section 60 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982;
  • “power to make Air Navigation Orders” means the power under section 60 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 to make Air Navigation Orders;
  • “UK Basic Regulation” means Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 July 2018 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Union Aviation Safety Agency, and amending Regulations (EC) No 2111/2005, (EC) No 1008/2008, (EU) No 996/2010, (EU) No 376/2014 and Directives 2014/30/EU and 2014/53/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council, and repealing Regulations (EC) No 552/2004 and (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council and Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91;
  • “UK Delegated Regulation” means Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/945 of 12 March 2019 on unmanned aircraft systems and on third-country operators of unmanned aircraft systems;
  • “UK Implementing Regulation” means Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/947 of 24 May 2019 on the rules and procedures for the operation of unmanned aircraft;
and a reference to the UK Basic Regulation, the UK Delegated Regulation or the UK Implementing Regulation is to that Regulation as it forms part of domestic law on and after IP completion day and as amended from time to time.

Footnotes

  1. I1
    S. 7(2) in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  2. I2
    S. 13 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  3. I3
    S. 14 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  4. I4
    S. 15 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  5. I5
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  6. I6
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  7. I7
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  8. I8
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  9. I9
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  10. I10
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  11. I11
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  12. I12
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  13. I13
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  14. I14
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  15. I15
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  16. I16
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  17. I17
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  18. I18
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  19. I19
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  20. I20
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  21. I21
    Sch. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  22. I22
    Sch. 8 para. 1 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  23. I23
    Sch. 8 para. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  24. I24
    Sch. 8 para. 3 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  25. I25
    Sch. 8 para. 4 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  26. I26
    Sch. 8 para. 5 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  27. I27
    Sch. 8 para. 6 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  28. I28
    Sch. 8 para. 7 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  29. I29
    Sch. 8 para. 8 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  30. I30
    Sch. 8 para. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  31. I31
    Sch. 8 para. 10 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  32. I32
    Sch. 8 para. 11 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  33. I33
    Sch. 8 para. 12 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  34. I34
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  35. I35
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  36. I36
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  37. I37
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  38. I38
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  39. I39
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  40. I40
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  41. I41
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  42. I42
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  43. I43
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  44. I44
    Sch. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes and 29.6.2021 for all other purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)(2)
  45. I45
    Sch. 10 para. 1 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  46. I46
    Sch. 10 para. 2 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  47. I47
    Sch. 10 para. 3 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  48. I48
    Sch. 10 para. 4 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  49. I49
    Sch. 10 para. 5 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  50. I50
    Sch. 10 para. 6 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  51. I51
    Sch. 10 para. 7 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  52. I52
    Sch. 10 para. 8 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  53. I53
    Sch. 10 para. 9 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  54. I54
    Sch. 10 para. 10 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  55. I55
    Sch. 10 para. 11 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  56. I56
    Sch. 10 para. 12 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  57. I57
    Sch. 10 para. 13 in force at 29.4.2021 for specified purposes, see s. 21(1)(a)
  58. I58
    S. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(a)
  59. I59
    Sch. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(g)
  60. I60
    S. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(b)
  61. I61
    Sch. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(h)
  62. I62
    Sch. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(i)
  63. I63
    Sch. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(f)
  64. I64
    Sch. 7 para. 1 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  65. I65
    Sch. 7 para. 2 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  66. I66
    Sch. 7 para. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  67. I67
    Sch. 7 para. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  68. I68
    Sch. 7 para. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  69. I69
    Sch. 7 para. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  70. I70
    Sch. 7 para. 7 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  71. I71
    Sch. 7 para. 8 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  72. I72
    Sch. 7 para. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  73. I73
    Sch. 7 para. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  74. I74
    Sch. 7 para. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(j)
  75. I75
    Sch. 8 para. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  76. I76
    Sch. 8 para. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  77. I77
    Sch. 8 para. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  78. I78
    Sch. 8 para. 12 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  79. I79
    Sch. 10 para. 2 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  80. I80
    Sch. 10 para. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  81. I81
    S. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(c)
  82. I82
    S. 13 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(d)
  83. I83
    S. 15 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(e)
  84. I84
    Sch. 8 para. 1 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  85. I85
    Sch. 8 para. 2 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  86. I86
    Sch. 8 para. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  87. I87
    Sch. 8 para. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  88. I88
    Sch. 8 para. 7 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  89. I89
    Sch. 8 para. 8 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  90. I90
    Sch. 8 para. 9 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  91. I91
    Sch. 8 para. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(k)
  92. I92
    Sch. 10 para. 1 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  93. I93
    Sch. 10 para. 3 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  94. I94
    Sch. 10 para. 4 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  95. I95
    Sch. 10 para. 5 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  96. I96
    Sch. 10 para. 6 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  97. I97
    Sch. 10 para. 7 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  98. I98
    Sch. 10 para. 8 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  99. I99
    Sch. 10 para. 10 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  100. I100
    Sch. 10 para. 11 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  101. I101
    Sch. 10 para. 12 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  102. I102
    Sch. 10 para. 13 in force at 29.6.2021 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2021/748, reg. 2(l)
  103. I103
    S. 1 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(a)
  104. I104
    S. 2 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(b)
  105. I105
    S. 3 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(c)
  106. I106
    S. 4 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(d)
  107. I107
    S. 5 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(e)
  108. I108
    S. 6 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(f)
  109. I109
    S. 7(1) in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(g)
  110. I110
    S. 7(2) in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(g)
  111. I111
    S. 8 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(h)
  112. I112
    Sch. 1 para. 1 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)
  113. I113
    Sch. 1 para. 2 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)
  114. I114
    Sch. 1 para. 3 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)
  115. I115
    Sch. 1 para. 4 in force at 18.2.2022 by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(i)
  116. I116
    Sch. 2 para. 1 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  117. I117
    Sch. 2 para. 2 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  118. I118
    Sch. 2 para. 3 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  119. I119
    Sch. 2 para. 4 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  120. I120
    Sch. 2 para. 5 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  121. I121
    Sch. 2 para. 6 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  122. I122
    Sch. 2 para. 7 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  123. I123
    Sch. 2 para. 8 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  124. I124
    Sch. 2 para. 9 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  125. I125
    Sch. 2 para. 10 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  126. I126
    Sch. 2 para. 11 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  127. I127
    Sch. 2 para. 12 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  128. I128
    Sch. 2 para. 13 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  129. I129
    Sch. 2 para. 14 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  130. I130
    Sch. 2 para. 15 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  131. I131
    Sch. 2 para. 16 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  132. I132
    Sch. 2 para. 17 in force at 18.2.2022 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2022/119, reg. 2(j)
  133. F1
    Words in s. 18 substituted (1.1.2024) by The Retained EU Law (Revocation and Reform) Act 2023 (Consequential Amendment) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/1424), reg. 1(2), Sch. para. 99
  134. F2
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6 heading substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(a)
  135. F3
    Words in Sch. 9 heading inserted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 4 para. 2
  136. F4
    Words in s. 14 inserted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), regs. 1(2), 11(1)(b)
  137. F5
    Words in s. 14 heading inserted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), regs. 1(2), 11(1)(a)
  138. F6
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 2(3)(b)(i) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(2)(a)
  139. F7
    Word in Sch. 8 para. 2(3)(b)(i) omitted (1.1.2026) by virtue of The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(2)(b)
  140. F8
    Sch. 8 para. 2(3)(b)(ia) inserted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(2)(c)
  141. F9
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 2(4)(b)(ii) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(3)
  142. F10
    Sch. 8 para. 2(6)(a)(iv) omitted (1.1.2026) by virtue of The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(4)(a)
  143. F11
    Sch. 8 para. 2(6)(aa) inserted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(4)(b)
  144. F12
    Sch. 8 para. 2(6)(a)(v) omitted (1.1.2026) by virtue of The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(4)(a)
  145. F13
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 2(6)(b) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 2(4)(c)
  146. F14
    Sch. 8 para. 5(ba)(bb) inserted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 3(b)
  147. F15
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 5(b)(i) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 3(a)(i)
  148. F16
    Sch. 8 para. 5(b)(ii) omitted (1.1.2026) by virtue of The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 3(a)(ii)
  149. F17
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6(a) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(c)
  150. F18
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6(b) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(d)
  151. F19
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6(c) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(e)
  152. F20
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6(d) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(f)
  153. F21
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6(e) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(g)
  154. F22
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6 substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(b)(ii)
  155. F23
    Words in Sch. 8 para. 6 substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 3 para. 4(b)(i)
  156. F24
    Words in Sch. 9 para. 1(3) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 4 para. 3
  157. F25
    Words in Sch. 9 para. 2(3) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 4 para. 4
  158. F26
    Words in Sch. 9 para. 6(1)(b) inserted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 4 para. 5(a)
  159. F27
    Words in Sch. 9 para. 6(3) substituted (1.1.2026) by The Unmanned Aircraft (Offences and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1284), reg. 1(2), Sch. 4 para. 5(b)
  160. F28
    Words in Sch. 9 para. 2(3)(a)(i) omitted (3.3.2026) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2026 (S.I. 2026/99), arts. 1(2), 3
  161. F29
    Words in Sch. 9 para. 2(3)(a)(ii) omitted (3.3.2026) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2026 (S.I. 2026/99), arts. 1(2), 3